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2021 JAMB ANSWERS FOR ONE OF OUR SUBSCRIBERS THAT WROTE ON 19TH JUNE - solutionfans.com
   

  • 2021 JAMB ANSWERS FOR ONE OF OUR SUBSCRIBERS THAT WROTE ON 19TH JUNE - solutionfans.com
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    Name Of Candidate:

    Exam Date: 19th June, 2021

    Exam Time:

    Jamb Subjects Combination:
    Use Of English
    Biology
    Physics
    Chemistry

    Jamb Biology Answers

    1. The soil type which when present in high proportion will not support the cultivation of vegetable is
    Ans: clay

    2. In mosses, the structure which performs the function of water absorption is the
    Ans: rhizoids

    3. The matured sex cell which takes place in sexual reproduction is referred to as
    Ans: gamete

    4. The most efficient respiratory structure used by free-living protozoan is
    Ans: body surface

    5. Which of the following factors can reduce the population of a community?
    Ans: emigration

    6. The structure is adapted for
    Ans: omnivores

    7. The lung of the lungfish is an adaption for respiration
    Ans: to compliment gills while in water

    8. Which of the following is an adaption of grassland vegetation
    Ans: possession of fewer tree branches bearing large-sized numbers of leaves

    9. The protists that is a producer in an aquatic food chain is
    Ans: Chlamydomonas

    10. The diagram represents a (diagram not added yet)
    Ans: wind vane

    11. An example of an insect that undergoes complete metamorphosis is
    Ans: butterfly

    12. The feeding relationship among a set of members of a community is referred to as
    Ans: food web

    13. The colour of the left eye of two out of three newly born kittens of the same parents is different from the right eyes because of
    Ans: mutation

    14. The ability to taste PTC in some individuals is a characteristic that is
    Ans: heritable

    15. The part labeled III [diagram missing] is
    Ans: guinea savanna

    16. Red blood cells are also known as
    Ans: erythrocytes

    17. The dentition [diagram missing] is found in
    Ans: man

    18. The bacteria that is spherically shaped is called
    Ans: coccus

    19. The excretory products common to both plants and animals are
    Ans: water and carbon(iv) oxide

    20. The continuous absence of iron in a diet of man result to
    Ans: anemia

    21. Epiphytic plants are more abundant in the part labeled [diagram missing]
    Ans: IV

    22. The level of organization of Amoeba and Eagle a cell is
    Ans: cell

    23. The instrument is used to measure
    Ans: direction of wing

    25. The soil component which has the ability to retain a high amount of water is
    Ans: clay

    26. The modification in structure physiology and behaviour of plant and animals is called
    Ans: adaption

    27. Agglutination can occur during blood transmission when
    Ans: blood of incompatible blood groups is mixed

    28. The host of Taenia solium is
    Ans: pig

    30. When an ovary is placed on the receptacle above the other floral parts is referred to as
    Ans: superior ovary

    31. An example of an organism which exists as a colony is
    Ans: volvox

    32. Size, colour, and fingerprints are examples of
    Ans: morphological variation

    33. The allele which phenotypically expresses itself from heterogeneous pairing is said to be
    Ans: a hybrid

    34. Which of the following is a characteristic of fungus? C
    Ans: they are both saprophytic and parasitic

    35. Carbon(iv) oxide is added to the atmosphere when
    Ans:

    36. The biome that is characterized by large herbivores, few and scattered fire-resistant trees is called ___
    Ans: savanna

    37. Nephridium is a structure that removes waste product from the body of ___
    Ans: an earthworm

    38. The joint between the femur and tibia is known as
    Ans: hinge joint

    39. The part that attracts insects for pollination is
    Ans: II (what is represented by “II”?)

    40. An example of insects that undergo complete metamorphosis is
    Ans: butterfly

    ___________________________________________

    Jamb Physics Answers

    1. an electric iron rated 200W is used for 5hrs. Calculate the cost of using the iron if the cost of electrical energy is N5.00 per kWh
    Ans. N5.00

    2. which of the following radiation has the highest penetrating power?
    Ans. gamma rays

    3. the power of a convex lens of focal length 20cm is
    Ans. 5D

    4. a lift of mass 1000kg lifts up 10 people with total masses 650kg to a height of 40m In 50s. Calculate the power of the lift
    Ans. 132,000W

    5. if the length of air column in a closed pipe at which the first resonance was observed is 0.425m, what is the wavelength of the air column?
    Ans. 1.70m

    6. what principle is the bean balance based on?
    Ans. principle of the moment are equilibrium

    7. where will an object be placed in front of a concave mirror to have an image which is magnified, upright and virtual?
    Ans. between the mirror

    8. which of the following is an example of a secondary cell?
    Ans. voltaic cell

    9. when white light is dispersed, the component of the visible spectrum having the longest wavelength is
    Ans. red

    10. which of the following statements is correct when an alternating current circuit resonates?
    Ans. XL = X

    11. the purpose of the vacuum in a thermos flask is to reduce the loss or gain heat by
    Ans. convection

    12. the body which emits light itself is
    Ans. a luminous body

    13. calculate the frictional force acting on a 20kg mass on a horizontal floor if the coefficient between the surface is 0.5 (g = 10m -2)
    Ans. 100N

    14. given the radius of the earth to be 6.4 x 10 6m. What velocity would a space agency consider to put a satellite in orbit?
    Ans. 11.300ms -1

    15. from b the diagram above, a boat cruised due east and changes its direction 60 0 north east before it encountered an engine failure. Calculate the shortest distance of a rescue boat from the same point of departure.
    Ans. 67.66m

    16. which of the statement above define the velocity ratio of a machine?
    Ans. I, II and IV

    17. a stone weights N in air 2 in water. Calculate the relative density of the stone.
    Ans. w1/(w1-w2)

    18. a pin is placed at the bottom of water, if when viewed directly above the water it is displaced by 3cm, calculate the thickness of the water
    Ans. 4cm

    19. the diagram above shows am an electric circuit. If the key is closed the voltmeter V reads the
    Ans. terminal voltage

    20. the minimum distance between a sound and a reflector for an echo to be heard in a second is (velocity of sound in air = 340 -1)
    Ans. 170m

    21. which of the following is NOT part of a.d.c generator?
    Ans. slip rings

    22. all of the following indicates thermometric properties except
    Ans. change in mass

    23. 60 waves passthrough a point in a ripple tank in 30s. The frequency of the wave is
    Ans. 2Hz

    24. find the mass of copper deposited on the cathode of copper voltameter if a current of 1.5A passes through it for 900s. (e.c.e of copper = 3.3 x 10 -2kgC -1)
    Ans. 4.5 x 10 -4kg

    25. an electron of charge 1.6 x10 -19 C moves at a right angle to the magnetic field of intensity 2.0 x 10 -4T. If the speed of the electron is 1.5 x 10 3 ms-1. calculate the force acting on the charge
    Ans. 4.8 x 10 -5N

    26. the two processes that are essential in an air conditioning system are
    Ans. evaporation and condensation

    27. if atmosphere n pressure is taken to be 1.3 x 10 6Nm -2, the pressure at the swimming pool 200m deep is (g = 10ms -2, the density of water = 10 3 kgm-3)
    Ans. 3.3 x 10 6Nm -2

    28. calculate the spring constant when a force of 10N applied on a spring produced an extension of 0.05m
    Ans. 200Nm -1

    29. 0.1kg of steam at 100 0C condenses to water at 100 0C. If the specific latent heat vaporization of water is 2.2 x 10 6jkg -1, the amount of heat given up is
    Ans. 2.2 x 10 5 J

    30. the isotope which decays by emission to produce
    Ans. 111 48 Y

    31. the temperature -273 0C is called the
    Ans. absolute zero of temperature

    32. from the diagram above, calculate the moment of the force of 40N about the point O
    Ans. 120Nm

    33. the magnetic elements that determine the earth’s magnetic field at a place are given below except
    Ans. electric induction

    34. from the digram above, calculate the equivalent capacitor
    Ans. 2F

    35. if a charge of 60 C experience a force of 12N, calculate the electric intensity
    Ans. 2.0 x 105 Ac -1

    36. the major carriers in a p-type semiconductor material are
    Ans. holes

    37. a certain box has a length of 90cm at 30 0 and 90.1cm at 530 0C. Calculate the coefficient of superficial expansion
    Ans. 4.4 x 10 -6 K -1

    38. the absorption of ink by blotting paper involves
    Ans. capillary action

    39. which of the following has the largest heat capacity
    Ans. 10kj of water

    40. from the above d iagram, a hunter threw a spear at 45% to kill an antelope. What is R?
    Ans. maximum range

    ___________________________________________

    Jamb Chemistry Answers 

    1. 16.55g of lead (ll) trioxonitrate (V) was dissolved in 100g of distilled water at 20oC, calculate the solubility of the solute in moldm-3 [Pb = 207, N = 14, O = 16]
    Ans: D. 0.50g

    2. The dispersion of a liquid in a liquid medium will give
    Ans: A. an emulsion

    3. The major and most effective way of controlling pollution is to
    Ans: C. educate people on the causes and effects of pollution

    4. The basicity of CH3COOH is
    Ans: B. 1

    5. The colour of litmus in a neutral medium is
    Ans: A. purple

    6. The mathematical expression of PH is
    Ans: B. log 101/[H 3 O+]

    7. Which of the following salts will turn blue litmus red?
    Ans: B. Potassium hydrogentetraoxosulphate (lV)

    8. A mixture is different from a compound because
    Ans: C. the constituent of a compound are chemically bound together while those of a mixture are not

    9. What is the percentage of sulphur in sulphur (IV) oxide?
    Ans: D. 50%

    10. A gas X diffuses twice as fast as gas Y. if the relative molecular mass of X is 32, calculate the relative molecular mass of Y.
    Ans: A. 128

    11. 200 cm3 of a gas at 25oC exerts a pressure of 700 mmHg. Calculate its pressure if its volume increase 350 cm3 at 75oC.
    Ans: C. 467.11 mmHg

    12. An element X has electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5. Which of the following statements is correct about the element?
    Ans: D. lt is a halogen

    13. Beryllium and aluminium have similar properties because they
    Ans: D. are positioned diagonally to each other

    14. If the difference in electronegativity of elements P and Q is 3.0. The bond that will be formed between them is
    Ans: D. ionic

    15. How many protons, neutrons and electrons respectively are present in the element 60/27 Co?
    Ans: C. 27, 33, and 27

    16. The radio active radiation used in studying the arrangement of particles in giant organic molecules is
    Ans: C. X-rays

    17. A silicon -containing ore has 92% 28Si, 5% 29Si and 3% 30Si. Calculate the relative atomic mass of the silicon.
    Ans: C. 28.11

    18. The nitrogen obtained from air has a density higher than the one from nitrogen-containing compounds because the one from air is contaminated with
    Ans: C. rare gases

    19. Water is said to be temporarily hard when it contains
    Ans: A. Ca (HCO3)2 and Mg (HCO3)2 salts

    20. On exposure to the atmosphere, a hydrated salt loses its water of crystallization to become anhydrous. This phenomenon is referred to as
    Ans: A. efflorescence

    21. Zn (s) + CuSO 4(aq) → ZnSO 4(aq) + Cu (s) In the reaction above, the oxidation number of the reducing agent changes from
    Ans: B. 0 to + 2

    22. H 2O (g) + C (s) → H2(g) + CO(g) The oxidizing agent in the reaction above is
    Ans: C. H2O(g)

    23. Calculate the quantity of electricity in coulombs required to liberate 10g of copper from a copper compound [Cu=64, F = 96500 Cmol-1]
    Ans: B. 30156.3

    24. How many faraday of electricity is required to produce 0.25 mole of copper?
    Ans: D. 0.50F

    25. In the electrolytic extraction of cacium from calcium chloride, the cathode is
    Ans: D. iron

    26. If the change in free energy of a system is -899 Jmol-1 and the entropy change is 10Jmol-1k-1 at 250C, calculate the enthalpy change.
    Ans: A. +2081 Jmol-1

    27. In an equilibrium reaction, which of the following conditions indicates that maximum yield of the product will be obtained?
    Ans: A. Equilibrium constant is very large

    28. In a chemical reaction, the change in concentration of a reactant with time is
    Ans: C. rate of reaction

    29. Cr 2O(2-/7) (aq) + H 2O(1)⇌ 2CrO(2-/4) (aq) + 2H + (aq) What happens to the reaction above when the hydrogen ion concentration is increased?
    Ans: D. the equilibrium position will shift to the left.

    30. Which of the following will shift to the left from dilute tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid?
    Ans: B. Magnesium

    31. The gas that is removed by the water in the flask is
    Ans: C. HCI

    32. Fluorine does not occur in the free state in nature because
    Ans: D. of its high reactivity

    33. In the extraction of sodium from fused sodium chloride, the anode is made of platinum because
    Ans: C. sodium does not react with platinum

    34. A compound that gives a brick-red colour to a non-luminous flame is likely to contain
    Ans: C. calcium ions

    35. A few drops of NaOH solution was added to an unknown salt forming a white precipitate which is insoluble in excess solution. The cation likely present is
    Ans: C. Ca^2+

    36. The general formula of haloalkanes where X represents the halide is
    Ans: D. C nH 2n+1X

    37. The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is
    Ans: C. glycerol

    38. Ethyne is passed through a hot tube containing organo-nickel catalyst to produce
    Ans: D. benzene

    39. Due to the unstable nature of ethyne, it is stored by dissolving in
    Ans: D. propanone

    40. The process of converting starch to ethanol is
    Ans: C. fermentation



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